The question is not whether the problem exists or not, its about the
sensitivity of its impact on the overall desired outcome, in this case, SQ. If there is NO significant,
statistically speaking, variability in perception by human hearing in a randomized double blinded test, it simply means that for all
practical purposes, the two samples/sources are equal in their intended impact/outcome. Are they equal in absolute terms? NO!, is the difference worth taking into consideration? NO!, unless of-course you want to tighten the tolerance of your double blinded test design itself, which is a moot point in my humble opinion.
On a lighter note without any offence to anyone, if one uses his power of reasoning and objectivity, the answer is a BIG NO! if one uses ears, ear drums, eustachian canal & other parts of human body you can very well buy anything that sells in the name of High res or audiophile goods & services